RADIOLOGY MCQ PDF

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Radiology Quiz. Medical Students Workbook. Author: Dr Aussami Abbas. SpR Radiology. Page 2. Case 1. Ques ons: 1) What is the diagnosis? 2) Name two. #{}. Radiology. February. Book. Review. MCQ's in Radiology. A. H. Chapman,. M.R.C.P.,. F.R.C.R., and. P. J. Robinson,. M.R.C.P.,. F.R.C.R.. New. Radiology MCQs - Download as Word Doc .doc), PDF File .pdf), Text File .txt) or read online.


Radiology Mcq Pdf

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MCQs for Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation ().pdf subject and to prepare for exams is to practice using Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). ().pdf. Ayko Nyush. MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology Kamala G Pillai MDS Faculty of the School of. Single best answer MCQs: a new format for the FRCR part 2a exam. Article (PDF Available) in Clinical Radiology 63(5) · June

Concerning the wrist and carpus: a The mid-carpal joint does not communicate with the radiocarpal joint. This groove is closely applied to the mid shaft of the humerus and a fracture in this location may give rise to neuropraxia.

The lower extremity of the radius expands to form the articular surface for the wrist joint and the ulna.

MCQ Companion to Applied Radiological Anatomy

In the hand and wrist: a In most cases two views are enough to exclude scaphoid fractures. In skeletal imaging: a Phased array surface detection coils greatly improve the signal to noise ratio in MRI of bone joint and soft tissue. In the bony pelvis: a the triradiate cartilage is seen as a Y-shaped lucency at the acetabulum in an immature skeleton in a plain radiograph. Hot spots are due to increased blood supply or osteoblast activity and may be seen in infection, fracture or malignancy.

In the pelvis: a The iliopsoas muscle passes anterior to the inguinal ligament. Concerning the muscles of the pelvic girdle: a The majority of the gluteus maximus merges with the iliotibial tract. In the pelvis: a The anteroposterior view of the plain radiograph is taken with the legs rotated externally.

Change in alignment of the superior surface of the pubic rami of more than 3 mm is abnormal. In pelvimetry: a Routine assessment of the female pelvis is performed before delivery. In the hip joint: a The fovea capitis to which the ligamentum teres is attached is not covered in cartilage.

Normal range is 11— Less than The ilio-femoral ligament is attached to the anterior inferior iliac spine and to the inter-rochanteric line, and is anterior to the femoral neck. This gives rise to a high incidence of avascular necrosis of the femoral head or non-union. On a lateral view this is not to be mistaken for a fracture.

Hence the inferior surface of the femur is nearly horizontal despite the shaft being oblique. In the lower limb: a b c d The patella is a sesamoid bone within the quadriceps tendon. The fabella is frequently found in the lateral head of gastrocnemius. In a bipartite patella the supero-lateral part is separate to the rest of the patella.

In the lower limb: a The rectus femoris arises from the anterior superior iliac spine. In the knee joint: a The synovium lining the joint is extracapsular. The sartorius and tensor fascia lata arise from the anterior superior iliac spine.

The rectus femoris inserts into the base of the patella and by the patellar ligament to the tibial tuberosity. This insertion is the same for the other muscles which form the quadriceps femoris; vastus — lateralis, medialis and intermedius. It prevents femur moving backwards on tibia. In the knee joint: a The anterior cruciate ligament has low signal intensity on T1- and T2weighted sagittal scans.

In the knee: a A tunnel view shows the patella well. More often a torn ACL is not visualized. Coronal images show medial and lateral collateral ligaments, sagittal images show menisci, cruciate ligaments and articular cartilages.

Normal menisci and ligaments are low signal on T1 and T2. It is infrequently torn compared with ACL. However, more prone to tear and may be symptomatic even if not torn. The anterior part is called ligament of Humphrey and the posterior part, ligament of Wrisberg. They can be mistaken for a tear of the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus or for loose bodies in front of or behind the PCL.

A tunnel view of the intercondylar fossa of the upper end of the tibia is used to detect intra-articular opacities.

Hence during Doppler ultrasound for venous thrombosis, excess pressure with the probe will obliterate the lumen and it cannot be visualized. This applies to ultrasound of veins in general. However, this is a sign to be elicited with the probe held transverse to the vein, to ensure patency of veins. Problems in the arch can lead to tendonitis or even rupture usually just at or above the tibiotalar joint.

The tibialis posterior inserts into the navicular, and gives variable slips to tarsal bodies and bases of second, third and fourth metatarsals.

Echopoor areas in the tendon may be due to tendonitis and a gap in the tendon is diagnostic of a tear. If not, it is a Lisfranc injury. An apophysis which mimics a fracture is longitudinal to the long axis of the metatarsal.

Module 3 Gastro-intestinal including hepatobiliary A. During embryological development: a A condensation of endoderm in the dorsal mesogastrium forms the spleen. In the development of the gut: a The cranial limb of the primary intestinal loop gives rise to most of the ileum. It is derived from mesoderm and not from gut endoderm. The dorsal bud gives rise to the head, body and tail of the pancreas. The ventral bud develops into the uncinate process. The dorsal pancreatic duct forms the accessory duct of Santorini.

In developmental anomalies of the gut: a Failure of recanalization of the lumen of the midgut may result in atresia or stenosis of the bowel. Regarding the peritoneum: a It is a closed sac in both male and female.

Concerning the peritoneal spaces: a The right subphrenic space extends from the right coronary ligament postero-inferiorly to the falciform ligament medially. The pectinate line in the adult marks the junction of the ectoderm and endoderm in the anal canal.

MCQs in Radiology with Explanatory Answers

Recanalization takes place and is completed by the ninth week. Incomplete recanalization may lead to gut duplication. The small bowel mesentery in this case is a narrow pedicle and allows volvulus of the whole small intestine — volvulus neonatorum.

Concerning the peritoneal spaces: a The right inframesocolic space is in direct communication with the pelvis. In the pelvic peritoneum: a The rectum is covered by peritoneum on the front up to the junction of the middle and lower thirds. In the abdomen: a The superior mesenteric vessels lie in the small bowel mesentery.

The right inframesocolic compartment is bounded by the transverse colon and the root of the small bowel mesentery. The left inframesocolic space is in free communication with the pelvis on the right of the midline and the mesentery of the sigmoid colon forms a partial barrier on the left of the midline. Both are in continuity with the pelvic peritoneal spaces. Men have one potential space posterior to the bladder — the recto-vesical pouch. The middle colic vessels course through the transverse mesocolon.

Regarding the peritoneal ligaments: a Between the two layers of the right coronary ligament is the bare area of the liver. In the abdomen: a The foregut extends from the lower oesophagus to the second part of the duodenum. It contains the short gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels. Behind it is the epiploic foramen leading into the lesser sac. Inferiorly it anastomoses with the inferior epigastric artery, a branch of the external iliac artery.

Regarding the oesophagus: a b c d e The upper third is supplied by the inferior thyroid artery. Ultrasonic waves are: The collision of electron flow from the anode surface; B. In the spontaneous decay of nuclei; D. Excitation of protons in a magnetic field.

For a CT image is used: Ultrasound ways; Magnetic resonance; D. Radiation obtained by spontaneous decay of nuclei. Magnetic resonance imaging is based on: Ability tissues resonate with the frequency of ultrasonic waves; B.

Curvature of X-rays in a magnetic field; C. Accelerating the spontaneous decay of some atoms in a magnetic field 6. Radionuclide radioisotope imaging method based on: Ability of pass or absorb ultrasonic waves; C. Ability to pass or absorb X-rays; D. The most frequent pulmonary root projection on the anterior chest wall is: IV-VI ribs C. I-III ribs 8. Computed Tomography most appropriate when: The presence of fluid in the pleural cavity C.

Specification of the status of the bronchi 9. The method of MRI advantages are: MRI harmless not connected with ionizing radiation; B. MRI produces an image of all organs and systems of the human body - especially soft tissue structures; C. MRI provides a study area, cuts in any plane and create three-dimensional reconstruction of the investigated objects; D. Typical all these benefits. Spiral computed tomography - is when: The body of a patient is placed in a special concluding that a spiral shape; B.

Name of machine is associated with X-ray tube - it has the shape of a spiral anode; C. The right atrium; B. Superior vena cava. What is the angle characteristic of normosthenic heart? What are the non-invasive diagnostic methods of radiation used in the study of the cardiovascular system: X-ray B.

RND D. To clarify the functional state of valvular heart most important method is A. Angiocardiography C. Electrokimography Formation of CT image based on: Selective radiopharmaceutical accumulation in tissues and organs; C. Magnetic resonance radiation are: When braking at the time of the collision of electrons with the anode; B. Due piezoelectric effect; D. If spontaneous decay of nuclei. Radiopharmaceuticals RFP - is: Iodinum-containing water soluble drug; D.

The level of placing of the right part of diaphragm on the anterior projection at x-ray film during the vertical position of the patient normally: Normally pulmonary picture is created by: Bronchial artery B.

Connective tissue stroma of lungs C. Limitation of X-ray method are: Effects of ionizing radiation on the child; B. Weak differentiation of soft tissue without specific contrast; C. If the X-ray machine is off, X-rays: Still available; B.

Benefits radioisotope diagnosis: Allows you to evaluate the pathological focus; C. Allows examine not only the space, but temporary distribution of radiopharmaceuticals in the area of interest; D. All these advantages. Directly MRI result is obtained: Three-dimensional image of the object; B. Investigated projection area on the plane; D. Temperature scheme of the studied area. Advantages of CT: Allows you to visualize any internal organs of the human body; B.

With the use of contrast agents possible evaluation of blood supply to organs and angioarchitectonics; C. Allows get three-dimensional images of inspection areas; D. Due to scale of Haunsfild: According to the zero mark adopted by the density of water; B. The density of air is , bone density is ; C. Limitation of computed tomography in pediatric practice: Requires absolutely motionless position of the patient with drug sedation or anesthesia for young children; B.

There is the action of ionizing radiation on the child; C.

The high cost and consequently had prevalence study; D. The image obtained by CT are: One-dimensional image in a peak bursts on center line.

Sweep signal amplitude over time. What applies artificial contrast for: To identify the source of inflammation; C. For three-dimensional image of the object; D. In all these cases. The left border of the heart in front of the direct projection normally placed: At the level of mid-clavicular line C. Opacity in radiology is: The area of increased transparency; C. Region absence of contrast; D. Area with no accumulation of radiopharmaceuticals. X-rays is a stream: Interlobar horizontal slit in the right lung located at: II rib B.

V rib RPH administered to the patient: Intravenous in most cases ; B. Orally rare ; C. By inhalation rare ; D. The principle of the computer tomograph: Registration spontaneous decay of nuclei radiopharmaceuticals, injected into the patient; C. Calculation spin-spin and spin-relaxation of protons; D.

Benefits of ultrasound: Non-invasive, painless; B. The relative speed and high informative method; C. The availability, relative cheapness of research, lack need long fixed position of the child; D. All of the properties. The radiation used in radionuclide diagnostics, are: When braking the flow of electrons in contact with the anode; B.

As a result, piezoelectric effect; C. Excitation of hydrogen nuclei in a magnetic field; D When spontaneous decay of nuclei.

Visualization objects ultrasound depends on: From the physical density of the object; C. From the proton density of the object; D. From elasticity and elastic properties of the object. The projection of the right lower lobe on the plain X-ray film: From top to VII ribs B. From top to aperture The main beam method of assessing lung are: What is the optimal projection for the study right ventricle?

Straight front B. Left anterior oblique C. Which part of heart is a contour in direct projection of the left side in norma? The ascending aorta B. Right atrium CLeft ventricle. Superior vena cava The projection of medium lobe of right lung at the front plain film: IV-V rib C.

IV-VII ribs For the diagnosis of neoplasm in the thoracic cavity children use: All of these methods. X-ray-positive preparations for artificial contrast - is: Chelation gadolinium; B.

All of the drugs What is the frequency dependence of ultrasound waves and their penetrating power: The lower frequency waves, the lower penetration; B. Between frequency ultrasound waves and her penetrating no correlation; D. It all depends on the specific configuration ultrasound device.

Multislices computer tomography allow: Conduct simultaneously and CT, and ultrasound; d. Just all these provisions. Depending on the duration of the half-life distinguished: Ultra briefly tenacious isotopes - several minutes short-lived - a few hours; B.

Medium-lived isotopes - a few days; B. Long-lived isotopes - ten days; D. All of the above varieties. Absolute contraindications for the ultrasound are: Conduct artificial respiration; B. Main applications CT: Pathology of the central nervous system and spinal cord; B.

Maxillofacial Surgery; C. Orthopedics, cardiac surgery, abdominal surgery and urology - rarely; D. CT is used in all these areas. Limitation of MRI are: The high cost and consequently had prevalence study; B. The need for long-term fixation of the Child medication sedation young children ; B. The presence of metallic foreign bodies in the body of the patient: All these restrictions. With increasing echogenicity; Hyperdense foci or nodes.

In functional tests of Holtskneht-Jacobson observed: The middle shade shifts towards in the healthy side D.

Mediastinum no changes X-rays are: By excitation of hydrogen nuclei in the investigated object magnetic field; C. As a result, piezoelectric effect; D. The projection of upper lobe of right lung at the plain anterior x-ray film on the line: I-III ribs B. II-V rib C. What is the optimal projection for examination of the right atrium?

Right anterior oblique C. Left anterior oblique D. Left Side During the MRI patient: Limitation of ultrasound: It is impossible to visualize an object, covered bone; B. It is impossible to render an object covered with a layer of gas; C. It is difficult to visualize an object, covered with a thick layer of fat; D.

MCQs in Radiology

Typical all of these restrictions. Ultrasonic vibrations have the ability to: Call the phosphors glow; B. Call the biological effect on the human body. Determination of tumor markers belongs to: Spiral computed tomography; C. In case of any dispute, all legal matters are to be settled under Delhi jurisdiction only. First Edition: The challenge for an educator is to foster the development of elementary diagnostic skill for the student's early clinical activities.

This skill once acquired will be the basis of a strong and reliable professional judgment in the dental specialty. Although there are numerous excellent comprehensive volumes available on Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology, a textbook is not currently available to provide the dental students with a wide selection of clinical diagnostic materials to learn and broaden their diagnostic experience.

This is the objective of this book. It covers most of what they must know and a little of what they already know. It is hoped that this. MCQs in Oral Medicine and Oral Radiology will in some measure help the student recall and enhance their knowledge and understanding of this important discipline of Dentistry. These time-tested MCQs has evolved from several years of teaching of the subject at college of dental surgery, Manipal, India: It is intended primarily for the BDS graduates seeking admission to postgraduate studies majoring in oral medicine and radiology through the competitive entrance examination.

The desire to compile multiple-choice questions and Il. Constructive criticisms and suggestions from readers of this book to enhance the quality and usefulness of this book would be highly appreciated. Nagamani Narayana, Asst. Yeshwant Rawal , Asst. Contents Part-I 1.

MCQs in Oral Medicine MCQs in Radiology Leukoedema" B. Speckled leukoplakia C. White sponge nevus D. Hairy leukoplakia E. A white cauliflower-like protruding growth on the buccal mucosa is likely to be a: Lipoma B. Papilloma C. Fibroma 3. Regarding leukoplakia: All cases eventually transform to malignancy B. Is a clinical term not necessarily mean dysplasia 4. White sponge nevus. An acquired infective condition D. Chronic cheek biting 5.

Lymphadenopathy is clinically manifested by: Hypersalivation B. Swelling of the gland C. Hyposalivation D. Atrophy of the gland 6. Papillomatous lesion B. Pleomorphic lesion D. Sessile lesion 7. Hairy leukoplakia B. Candidal leukoplakia C. Erythroplakia D. A-reliable-clinical indication of malignancy is: Metastasis B. Tenderness ' C. A nodule "D. Ulceration 9. The most common fooo of biopsy in a dental office is: Incisional biopsy B.

Curettage C. Punch biopsy D. Aspiration Gingival swelling in leukemia is due to: Infiltration of leukemic cells into the gingival tissues B. Inflammatory edema C. Poor oral hygiene D. Proliferation of blood vessels The treatment of angular cheilitis is by a combination of: Antibiotics and antifungal agents B. Antibiotics and antiviral agents C. Antifungal and analgesics D. Antibiotics and steroid mouth wash A marked increase in tongue coating is associated with: Pernicious anemia B.

Iron deficiency anemia C. Erythematous candidiasis D. Disturbance in oral physiology Deep cervical B. Submandibular C. Submental D.

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Superficial cervical Yellowish white spots which are usually present bilaterally in the oral cavity may be: Lymphonodular pharyngitis B. Koplik's spots C. Fordyce's spots D. Focal ker. Freely movable exophytic pedunculated relatively soft mass B. Firmly fixed fungating exophytic mass C. Rolled elevated and indurated border with or without an ulcerated centre D.

Firmly fixed indurated massof long duration E. Multiple white nodular elevations with a central red dot on the posterior part of the palate represent: Thrush B. Nicotina stomatitis palatina C. Focal keratosis D. Papillary hyperplasia 1 7. In a year -old patient with a complaint of swollen gums and gingival bleeding, generalized body pain and malaise, and recent loss of body weight, the most probable diagnosis is: Puberty gingivitis C.

Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis D. Acute leukemia E. Acute streptococcal gingivitis 1 8. Are a clinical entity B. May be seen in children C. Disappears while stretching the mucosa I B. Is bilateral in nature ' C. Is rriilky white in appearance D. Leukoplakia is-a white lesion that: Has no malignant potential. Transforms into malignancy onl ylf1t'becomes extensive C.

Can become malignant irrespective of its size D. Always has a predictable outcome 2 1. Clinical appearance of leukoplakia is a true indicator of: Moderate dysplasia B. Carcinoma in situ C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. None of the above Histologically squamous cell carcinoma shows severe: Dysplasia only B. Dysplasia with an intact basement membrane C.

Dysplasia with keratin pearl in the epithelial layer D. Dysplasia with keratin pearl in the connective tissue. The homogeneous type of sublingual keratosis has a: High rate o f malignant potential B. Malignant potential similar to homogenous leukoplakia occurring" at any site C. Malignant potential depending on the size of the lesion D. The most common cause of keratosis is: Physical trauma B. Tobacco use C. Genetic abnormalities D. Mucocutaneous disease E.

Inflammatory reaction Differential diagnosis of leukoedema includes the following except: Leukoplakia B. Cheek biting C. Aspirin bum E. Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis B. Pachyonichia congenita D. Atrophic type of lichen planus Hereditary benign intraepithelial dyskeratosis: May cause blindness and oral lesions B. Invariably involves the dorsum of the tongue C.

Usually starts in the second decade D. Has a moderate risk of malignant transformation Pachyonichia congenita is characterized by: White lesions of the oral mucosa B.

White lesions of the rectum C. Defective formation of the nails of hands and feet D. Corneal opacity E. All of the above Prolonged period of exposure is necessary for malignant change B. The lesions are generally painless and asymptomatic E. Lesions are discovered during routine oral examination Tylbsis with esophageal carcinoma D.

Esophageal sideropenic dysphagia B. Oral submucus, fibrosis C. AIDS E. Syphilis Predisposing factors for the develop ment of leukoplakia are: Dysregulation of immune defense system B. Trauma-mechanical, chemical and thermal C. Management of idiopathic leukoplakia consists of: Periodic check up of the lesion B.

Incisional biopsy C. Birnination of etiologicat: Incisional biopsy and other relevant investigations E All of the abpve The following lesions have a very high risk for malignant changes except: Candidal leukoplakia B.

Verrucous leukoplakia C. Syphilitic glossitis D. Erythroplakia E. Carcinoma in situ Sublingual keratosis B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome C.

Speckled leukoplakia D.

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Idiopathic leukoplakia E. Which of the following statements is true: Leukoplakia with a red component. Leukoplakia that show dysplastic changes are unlikely to develop into carcinoma 4. Leukoplakia occurring in patient who never smoked have a greater chance for malignant change 5. Leukoplakia lesions in the tongue, have a significantly higher maligriant transfonnation rate in women than in men A. The following featUres are true regarding the nature of pain in acute pulpitis except: Stabbing pain B.

Excruciating pain C. Relief folloWing removal of the irritant E. AnalgesiCS are of great help in relieving pain Which of the following statements is true about malignant lesions: The size of the tumor is an indicator of the degree of dysplasia 2. There is no correlation between the degree of dysplasia and the size of the tumor 3. Clinical appearance alone is sufficient to determine the underlying malignancy 4.

Biopsy is essential to diagnose the malignancy A. Which of the following is true regarding sublingual keratosis: It has a high rate of malignant transformation B. The homogenous type is not considered as a high-risk lesion C. The homogenous type mixed with red component is only considered a high-risk lesion D. Small lesions can be left alone and managed by periodic check up Erythroplakic lesions on histological examination may show: Moderate-to-severe dysplasia B.

Severe dysplasia C. Carcinoma in situ D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Any of the above The clinical appearance of carcinoma in situ are the following except: Ulcerated lesion C.

Indurated mass. Erythroplakia Which of the follOwing statements is true regarding carcinoma in situ? It may appear as: A white and ulcerated lesion B.

A red and ulcerated lesion C. Shiny atrophic patches O. Histologically, carcinoma in situ will show: Mild-to-moderate dysplasia B. Mild-to-severe dysplasia C. An intact basement membrane B. Presence of few epithelial cells in the connective tissue Cold sore B. Mucous membrane pemphigoid C. Major aphthous ulcer D. Erosive lichen planus Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised in the following conditions except: Polyosteotic fibrous dysplasia B. Paget's disease C. Osteoma D. Hyperparathyroidism E Viral hepatitis B Which one: Osteopetrosis B.

Pregnancy C. Osteogenic sarcoma D. Metastatic tumor of bone E Rickets Following conditions may be associated with iron deficiency anemia except: Multiple myeloma B. Burning mouth syndrome C. Angular cheilitis D. Chronic traumatic ulcer B. Squamous cell carcinoma C.

Necrotizing sialometaplasia D. Squamous papilloma All of the following lesions are indurated except: Tuberculous ulcer B. Syphilitic ulcer C. Noma E Deep fungal infections Coxsackie virus causes all these conditions except: Hand, foot and mouth disease B. Herpangina C. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis D.

Herpetiform ulcers Causes of neurological facial pain do not include: Trigeminal neuralgia B. Post-herpetic neuralgia C. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia D. Brainstem disease E Causalgia' Componenfs of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include the following except: Oral ulcers B.

Peptic ulcers C. Ocular lesions D. Skin lesions E Genital ulcers The following investigations are needed for the diagnosis of 'Sjogren' s syndrome except: Sialography B.

Labial biopsy C. Salivary flow rate D. Immunological E. Red painful tongue B. Epithelial atrophy C. Dysphagia D. Hyperchromic microcytic anemia E. Hypochromic microcytic anemia Which of these is not a complication of prolonged systemic steroid therapy: Hypertension B. Opportunistic infections C. Hypoglycemia D. Adrenal suppression Which of the following oral mucosal conditions is not associated with eye lesions: Behcset's syndrome B.

Pemphigus C. Pemphigoid D. Albright's syndrome Topical steroid is a drug of choice in the management of: Herpetiform ulcers B. Thrush C. Condyloma latum D. Verruca vulgaris E. Papilloma Periapical infection 'of the maxillary second molar will involve the: Preauricular node, B. Submandibular node C. Submental node E. Postauricular node. Viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Fungal infection. Administration of aspirin should be avoided in patients being treated with anticoagulants because it: Decreases anticoagulant effect B.

Causes gastritis C. Over sedates the patient D. Decreases platelet aggregation Identify the true statement regarding primary Sjogren's syndrome: Causes similar microscopic changes on salivary gland to those in secondary SjOgren's syndrome B. Is associated with connective tissue disease C.

Tends to have less severe effect on glandular functions than Sjogren's syndrome D. Usually treated with topical corticosteroids Potential complications of herpes zoster are the following except: Post-herpetic neuralgia B. Facial paralysis C. Corneal scarring D. Neuropathy Microscopically, it may appear as chronic candidiasis B. May be the result of persistence of the tuberculum impar Forms only on the midline D. I ," Behl;;et' 5 s Yndrome B.

First line of drug treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is: Phenytoin sodium B. Carbamazepine C. Clonazepam D.

Valproic acid E. Diazepam Stevens- Johnson syndrome is managed mainly by: Topical steroids B. Topical and systemic steroids C. Antibiotics and chlorhexidine mouthwash D. Supportive treatment only since it is a self limiting disease Which of the following lesions is not characterized by sub-epithelial bulla: Lichen planus B. Chickenpox C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid D. Epidermolysis bullosa E.

Dermatitis herpetiformis ;9. Aphthous stomatitis: Microscopically shows specific diagnostic features B. Is always associated with autoimmune disease D. Patients have vitamin B12 or Folate deficiency Which of these statements does not apply to herpes simplex virus: Is a RNA virus C.

Can cause eye infections D. May be fatal in immuriocompromised patients 7 1. Which of these state6tents is incorrect regarding pemphigus? Is an autoimmune disease B. Is treated by steroids C. Starts as a blood filled bullae on skin or mucosa - D. Is characterized histologically by intraepithelial bulla E.

Median rhomboid glossitis: Is considered always as a developmental anomaly B. Appears to c hange it's position on the m u c o u s membrane C.The advantages of radionuclide imaging: Dicentric formation of chromosomes is an aberration that can result due to exposure to radiation. Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised in the following conditions except: Topical steroids B. Hemophilia B C. Actinic keratosis D. Tube head and filters.

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